A rather trivial fact (from an exercise in Lang's Undergraduate Algebra), but interesting, all the same.
Typically, when faced with expanding the expression (x + y)p, where p is a positive integer, many a not-thinking student will write:
(x + y)p = xp + yp
(to the despair of markers, I must say.)
The ironic thing is, it's true! Sometimes. Namely, when x, y, are integers, p prime. And taking the expression mod p.
Claim:
(x + y)p (mod p) = (xp + yp) (mod p)
Proof:
First, a lemma.
Lemma:
For all primes p, integers 0 < n < p, p | pCn (p choose n).
Proof:
By definition,
pCn = p!/[n!(p-n)!] = [p*(p-1)*...*(p-n+1)]/n!
Since p is prime and 0 < n < p, n! does not have p as a factor, i.e. gcd(n!, p) = 1. Since pCn is an integer, we must have
n! | [(p-1)*...*(p-n+1)]
(say n!a = [(p-1)*...*(p-n+1)], where a is a positive integer), which means that
pCn = pa
which is divisible by p.
Now, by the binomial theorem and our lemma,
(x + y)p (mod p)
= pC0xpy0 + pC1xp-1y1 + ... + pCp-1x1yp-1 + pCpx0yp (mod p)
= xp + 0 + ... + 0 + yp (mod p)
= xp + yp (mod p)
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Back to being internet-deprived...*sigh*
Sunday, April 22, 2007
Just A Tad Ironic
Posted by
Echiral
at
2:50 PM
Labels: Mathematics
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